Why do we find blind delicious accord to Aristotle, Kant, Schopenhauer, Nietzsche and Freud? Explain each position fully. Which position do you chequer with most, and why? Why do you find the other positions unequal? What relation does each beter believe art has an crowning(prenominal) reality and what relation might this have to their view of art’s diversion giving nature.
In the readings Aristotle finds art whether it be Music, Dance, Painting or Sculpture representational. He asserts that art is pleasurable beca lend oneself of its characteristics. “It’s purpose is to bring about a catharsis, a purging of the emotions, through the experience of fear and pity.”-Aristotle (pg.27) I regain that Aristotle’s position of art is true from my power point of view. I think that there are a lot of artists, including myself that use a representational standpoint. Playing on emotions to create. I think that everyone can relate to his works for everyone at one point in time has felt drama or tragedy.
From what I understood about Kant is that he broke down delight in art like a puzzle, but purge them into groups. One of them is specific interest. Another is form as an object. The ternary being “Genius as the faculty of artistic entry”. -Kant (pg.
49) He states that when we look at a beautiful object we use our imagination and we get an understanding and we receive a “certain kind of harmony”. In which all earth can experience. “Art objects are those created to produce aesthetic pleasure by virtue of their form.”-Kant (pg. 50)
Schopenhauer’s view of art is muddy as opposed too pleasurable. He sees artist as tragic characters forced to tell the truth about humanity, to that extent doomed to fail. He reveals that truths contemplation of will is that reality is a mere illusion, and that all humanity is pointless, and that we are pawns in this unceasing game called life. Yet he feels that things happen for a reason....If you indirect request to get a full essay, order it on our website: Orderessay
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